GMC Lab Technician Exam Paper 2025 PDF (10 May) – Question Paper, Answer Key & Analysis
Get the GMC Lab Technician Exam Paper conducted on 10 May 2025. Free PDF download, exam review, answer key, and preparation tips for upcoming lab technician exams in Gujarat.
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1. Which of the following is considered a post-streptococcal sequel,
occurring after an untreated Group A Streptococcal infection?
(A) Pharyngitis (B) Acute Rheumatic fever
(C) Impetigo (D) Cellulitis
ans. (B) Acute Rheumatic fever
2. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating mineral levels in
the body?
(A) Aldosterone (B) Testosterone
(C) Progesterone (D) Estrogen
ans. (A) Aldosterone
3. Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
(A) Rabies vaccine (B) Diphtheria toxoid
(C) BCG vaccine (D) Tetanus toxoid
ans. (C) BCG vaccine
4. Which of the following serum components is an indicator of
post-infection and subsequent immunity to hepatitis B-viral infection?
(A) HBsAg (B) Anti-HBs
(C) HBcAg (D) Anti-HBc
ans. (B) Anti-HBs
5. Which type of microtome is most commonly used for sectioning
formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue blocks in histopathology labs?
(A) Cryostat (B) Base sledge microtome
(C) Rotary microtome (D) Sliding microtome
ans. (C) Rotary microtome
6. By which method is reducing sugar in urine/stool tested manually?
(A) Fouchet's method (B) Ehrlich's reagent method
(C) Benedict's method (D) Sulphosalicylic acid method
ans. (C) Benedict's method
7. Which of the following hormones stimulates osteoclast activity and
promotes bone resorption?
(A) Calcitonin (B) Estrogen
(C) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) (D) Thyroxine
ans. (C) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
8. What is the primary function of hemoglobin in the human body?
(A) Prevent blood loss by promoting clot formation
(B) Help the immune system fight infections
(C) Transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues
(D) Support blood coagulation during prolonged bleeding
ans. (C) Transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues
9. Which of the following biochemical tests is specifically used to detect
the presence of glucose in urine?
(A) Heat test (B) Benedict's test
(C) Fouchet's test (D) Hay's test
ans. (B) Benedict's test
10. What is the pH of the buffered distilled water used in Leishman's
staining?
(A) 6.8 (B) 7.2 (C) 7.4 (D) 8
ans. (A) 6.8
11. Which of the following diseases are caused by viruses that primarily
affect the nervous system?
i) Poliomyelitis ii) Influenza iii) Bronchial pneumonia iv) Rabies
(A) i and ii (B) ii and iii (C) i and iv (D) i and iii
ans. (C) i and iv
12. What is the lifespan of a normal red blood cell (RBC)?
(A) 112 days (B) 102 days (C) 90 days (D) 120 days
ans. (D) 120 days
13. Minimum hemoglobin (Hb) concentration required for blood donation is:
(A) 12.5 gm/dl (C) 13.5 gm/dl (B) 11.0 gm/dl (D) 13.0 gm/dl
ans. (A) 12.5 gm/dl
14. The primary function of which cells is the development of various
defense mechanisms and repair processes?
(A) Thrombocytes (B) Leukocytes
(C) Erythrocytes (D) Reticulocytes
ans. (B) Leukocytes
15. Which of the following is an example of a neurotransmitter?
(A) Insulin (B) Noradrenaline
(C) Cholesterol (D) Bile
ans. (B) Noradrenaline
16. Which of the following are causes of pathological polyuria?
i) Increased fluid intake ii) Diabetes mellitus iii) Diabetes insipidus iv)
High protein diet
(A) i and ii (B) i and iii (C) i and iv (D) ii and iii
ans. (D) ii and iii
17. Which of the following tumor markers is primarily used for the
detection and monitoring of prostate cancer?
(A) CEA (B) PSA (C) AFP (D) CA-125
ans. (B) PSA
18. Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) due to Rh incompatibility can be
prevented by administering anti-D antibody to an Rh-negative mother within how
many hours after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant?
(A) 24 hours (C) 48 hours (B) 36 hours (D) 72 hours
ans. (D) 72 hours
19. In which condition are microcytic and hypochromic RBCs seen on a
peripheral blood smear?
(A) Megaloblastic anemia (B) Hemolytic anemia
(C) Iron deficiency anemia (D) Hereditary spherocytosis
ans. (C) Iron deficiency anemia
20. Which of the following lymphocytes are primarily responsible for
antibody production in the immune system?
(A) A lymphocytes (B) B lymphocytes
(C) C lymphocytes (D) D lymphocytes
ans. (B) B lymphocytes
21. Which test does NOT measure glomerular filtration?
(A) Osmolality of Serum (B) Creatine
(C) Amino Acids (D) Creatinine
ans. (C) Amino Acids
22. What increases in myocardial infarction (heart attack)?
(A) Urea (B) Troponin (C) Uric acid (D) Bilirubin
ans. (B) Troponin
23. What is the depth of the Improved Neubauer counting chamber?
(A) 0.1 mm (B) 0.01 mm (C) 0.001 mm (D) 1 mm
ans. (A) 0.1 mm
24. Which of the following is an extra-chromosomal, autonomously
replicating genetic element found in bacteria?
(A) Phasmid (B) Cosmid (C) Plasmid (D) Phagemid
ans. (C) Plasmid
25. Which is the best method for estimation of hemoglobin?
(A) Aldine hematin method (B) Cyanmethemoglobin method
(C) Sahli's method (D) Specific gravity method
ans. (B) Cyanmethemoglobin method
26. From where will you collect the blood for ABG?
(A) Artery (B) Vein (C) CVP line (D) Capillary
ans. (A) Artery
27. Which one of the following fungi is the most serious threat in a bone
marrow transplant unit?
(A) Blastomyces (B) Cryptococcus
(C) Candida albicans (D) Aspergillus
ans. (D) Aspergillus
28. Bacillus is an example of:
(A) Virus (B) Gram-negative bacteria
(C) Gram-positive bacteria (D) Viroid
ans. (C) Gram-positive bacteria
29. Curschmann's spirals are characteristically seen in which of the
following conditions?
(A) Bronchiectasis (B) Bronchial asthma
(C) Chronic bronchitis (D) Wegener's granulomatosis
ans. (B) Bronchial asthma
30. Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
(A) Adrenal – Cortisol (B) Pituitary – Estrogen
(C) Testes – Testosterone (D) Pancreas – Insulin
ans. (B) Pituitary – Estrogen
31. Which method is commonly used for the estimation of creatinine in
clinical laboratories?
(A) GOD-POD method (B) Biuret method
(C) Uricase method (D) Modified Jaffe's method
ans. (D) Modified Jaffe's method
32. Enzymes are chemically:
(A) Proteins (B) Lipids (C) Carbohydrates (D) None of the given
ans. (A) Proteins
33. Which enzyme increases in acute pancreatitis?
(A) Trypsin (B) Acid phosphatase
(C) Urease (D) Amylase
ans. (D) Amylase
34. Psammoma bodies are most commonly seen in which of the following tumors?
(A) Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
(B) Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid
(C) Invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast
(D) Adenocarcinoma of the stomach
ans. (A) Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
35. An increased neutrophil count in the peripheral blood is most commonly
associated with which of the following conditions?
(A) Allergy (B) Viral infection
(C) Parasitic infection (D) Bacterial infection
ans. (D) Bacterial infection
36. The motile bacteria is:
(A) Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) Salmonella typhi
(C) Shigella flexneri (D) Bacillus anthracis
ans. (B) Salmonella typhi
37. What is the protein portion of an enzyme called?
(A) Co-factor (B) Apoenzyme
(C) Coenzyme (D) Prosthetic group
ans. (B) Apoenzyme
38. A homogeneous mixture of a solute and a solvent is called:
(A) Electrolyte (B) Emulsion (C) Suspension (D) Solution
ans. (D) Solution
39. Which of the following is a sulfur-containing amino acid?
(A) Cysteine (B) Alanine (C) Glycine (D) Valine
ans. (A) Cysteine
40. When WBC count is below the normal range, it is called:
(A) Neutrophilia (B) Leucocytosis
(C) Leucopenia (D) Lymphocytosis
ans. (C) Leucopenia
41. Which of the following best describes the red blood cell indices seen
in microcytic hypochromic anemia?
(A) MCV is increased (B) MCV remains within the normal reference range
(C) MCV is decreased (D) MCHC is increased
ans. (C) MCV is decreased
42. Pigment-bearing structures of bacteria are:
(A) Mitochondria (B) Chromophores
(C) Plasmids (D) Mesosomes
ans. (B) Chromophores
43. Which of the following statements is true regarding monoclonal
antibodies?
(A) They possess different types of heavy chains for enhanced diversity
(B) They are produced by multiple clones of plasma cells and recognize
multiple epitopes
(C) They contain different types of light chains to improve antigen
recognition
(D) They are produced by a single clone of plasma cells and are identical
in structure and antigen specificity
ans. (D) They are produced by a single clone of plasma cells and are
identical in structure and antigen specificity
44. Antiseptic methods were first introduced by:
(A) Iwanowsky (B) Edward
(C) Beijerinck (D) Lord Lister
ans. (D) Lord Lister
45. Tinea capitis is:
(A) Ringworm of the foot (B) Ringworm of non-hairy skin of body
(C) Ringworm of the scalp (D) Both (A) & (C)
ans. (C) Ringworm of the scalp
46. Which is the most common type of lung cancer in women and non-smokers?
(A) Small cell carcinoma (B) Large cell carcinoma
(C) Squamous cell carcinoma (D) Adenocarcinoma
ans. (D) Adenocarcinoma
47. Bence Jones proteins in urine are:
(A) Whole immunoglobulin in urine
(B) Fab fragment of immunoglobulin in serum
(C) Fc fragment of immunoglobulin in serum
(D) Monoclonal light chain in urine
ans. (D) Monoclonal light chain in urine
48. Which of the following tests is specifically used to assess immunity or
susceptibility to diphtheria toxin?
(A) Dick test (B) Blood culture
(C) Widal test (D) Schick test
ans. (D) Schick test
49. What is the correct route of administration for the Schick test toxin
or purified protein derivative (Mantoux test)?
(A) Intradermal (B) Subcutaneous (C) Intravascular
ans. (A) Intradermal
50. Comma-shaped bacteria are known as:
(A) Streptococci (B) Staphylococci
(C) Vibrio (D) Bacillus
ans. (C) Vibrio
51. This fatal disorder results from clot/thrombus formation in the blood
circulation:
(A) Thromboembolism (B) DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis)
(C) Pulmonary embolism (D) All of the given
ans. (D) All of the given
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